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Message-ID: <14f.32c0212.290e7c29@aol.com>
Date: Mon, 29 Oct 2001 04:32:25 EST
Subject: Re: [lojban] a construal of lo'e & le'e
To: lojban@yahoogroups.com
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In a message dated 10/28/2001 6:17:06 PM Central Standard Time, 
rob@twcny.rr.com writes:


> Is it not true that if you use {da} in one sentence and again in
> another, without using {da'o}, it refers to the same thing?
> 
> For example, is this correct?
> {.i reda cu kanla mi .i da blanu}
> 

Officially not, but then we get hung up on the meaning of "sentence" for 
Lojban and also on the general permission to slop over {i} when "it is clear 
what is intended" -- rampant glorkosis. To be safe, say {ije} instead of 
{i} the second time (why the first, by the way?). (Sentence in lojban" all 
between a bare {i} /beginning of speech/{ni'o}/... and the next bare {i}/end 
of speech/{ni'o}/...)


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<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><BODY BGCOLOR="#ffffff"><FONT SIZE=2>In a message dated 10/28/2001 6:17:06 PM Central Standard Time, rob@twcny.rr.com writes:
<BR>
<BR>
<BR><BLOCKQUOTE TYPE=CITE style="BORDER-LEFT: #0000ff 2px solid; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px">Is it not true that if you use {da} in one sentence and again in
<BR>another, without using {da'o}, it refers to the same thing?
<BR>
<BR>For example, is this correct?
<BR>{.i reda cu kanla mi .i da blanu}
<BR></BLOCKQUOTE></FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" SIZE=3 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial" LANG="0">
<BR>
<BR>Officially not, but then we get hung up on the meaning of "sentence" for Lojban and also on the general permission to slop over {i} when "it is clear what is intended" &nbsp;-- rampant glorkosis. &nbsp;To be safe, say {ije} instead of {i} the second time (why the first, by the way?). &nbsp;(Sentence in lojban" all between a bare {i} /beginning of speech/{ni'o}/... and the next bare {i}/end of speech/{ni'o}/...)
<BR></FONT></HTML>

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