Subject: Re: [lojban] a construal of lo'e & le'e

From: And Rosta <[email-masked]>
Date: Mon, 29 Oct 2001 17:05:52 +0000

Rob wrote:
> Is it not true that if you use {da} in one sentence and again in
> another, without using {da'o}, it refers to the same thing?
> 
> For example, is this correct?
> {.i reda cu kanla mi .i da blanu}

I replied "yes"

pc replied: 
#Officially not, 

pc is right. I was wrong (due to focusing on a different issue).

--And.