Subject: Re: [lojban] Re: paroi ro mentu

From: "Jorge Llambias" <[email-masked]>
Date: Sun, 29 Sep 2002 16:37:50 +0000

la djorden cusku di'e

> > {paroi ro le re djedi} is a single term as much as
> > {paroi le pavdei e le reldei} is a single term. Whatever rule
> > applies to one (scopewise) should apply to the other.
>
>Of course...
>
> > The rule I think is the Right Thing is that {e}/{ro} have
> > scope over {pa} in that example.
>
>That is of course the whole discussion. My viewpoint is that the
>paroi scopes over the pavdei, which scopes over the reldei, etc.

You say of course, but you don't apply it. You are not taking
into account that {e} has a scope of its own as well. When you
split {paroi ko'a e ko'e} into {paroi ko'a ije paroi ko'e}, you're
saying that {e} has scope over {paroi}. If {paroi} had scope over
{e} you could not make the expansion. Expanding {e} is equivalent
to exporting {ro} to the prenex.

mu'o mi'e xorxes

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