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Date: Fri, 11 Oct 2002 20:07:32 EDT
Subject: Re: [lojban] Why kez?
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In a message dated 10/11/2002 6:12:03 PM Central Daylight Time, 
a.rosta@lycos.co.uk writes:

<<
> How come {kei} has a rafsi (kez)?
> >>
Is the question Why this particular form of rafsi? or Why a rafsi for kei at 
all?
I suppose the answer to the first is"because it doesn't interfere with 
anything else yet is close to the full form." I haven't a clue about the 
second, since I can't imagine actually using it in a lujvo --even if {kei} 
were used in the underlying tanru.


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<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><BODY BGCOLOR="#ffffff"><FONT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffffff" SIZE=2>In a message dated 10/11/2002 6:12:03 PM Central Daylight Time, a.rosta@lycos.co.uk writes:<BR>
<BR>
&lt;&lt;<BR>
<BLOCKQUOTE TYPE=CITE style="BORDER-LEFT: #0000ff 2px solid; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px">How come {kei} has a rafsi (kez)?<BR>
</BLOCKQUOTE>&gt;&gt;<BR>
Is the question Why this particular form of rafsi? or Why a rafsi for kei at all?<BR>
I suppose the answer to the first is"because it doesn't interfere with anything else yet is close to the full form." I haven't a clue about the second, since I can't imagine actually using it in a lujvo --even if {kei} were used in the underlying tanru.<BR>
<BR>
</FONT></HTML>
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