Subject: [lojban] Re: [h] (was: RE: Re: Aesthetics

From: Robin Lee Powell <[email-masked]>
Date: Sun, 8 Dec 2002 14:39:57 -0800

On Sun, Dec 08, 2002 at 04:28:07AM +0200, Adam Raizen wrote:
> de'i li 2002-12-08 ti'u li 00:06:00 la'o zoi. And Rosta .zoi cusku di'e
> 
> >> Because there is a greater phonic contrast between [T] and [f] or
> >> [s] than between [h] and [x] 
> >
> >Furthermore, [ihi] is so difficult to articulate that I think we can
> >safely assume that nobody actually does say [ihi].
> 
> I, for one, certainly do say [ihi], and [coho] and everything else
> like that clearly, and it is quite distinct from an [x].

I'm very curious as to what the heck Rosta is talking about here.

[ihi], assuming I understand the IPA, as *trivial* for me to say, and I
dare say that holds true for the vast majority of north american english
speakers.

> >In other words, the problem is not only that [h] and [x] are rather
> >similar in isolation, 

Umm, what?

We *are* talking about lojban ' and x, right?

> Arabic contains both, in addition to some other very similar
> consonants between them, and I am almost certain that it contrasts
> them. I'm pretty sure that German also contains both, though I don't
> know whether it contrasts them. Carefully enunciated Hebrew also
> contains both and contrasts them,

And Hindi contains just about every consonant imaginable. 8)

-Robin

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