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To: lojban@egroups.com
Subject: Re: [lojban] 2 maths questions
Date: Wed, 05 Jul 2000 19:38:05 PDT
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From: "Jorge Llambias" <jjllambias@hotmail.com>

la and cusku di'e

>2. The set of even numbers and the set of integers are both infinite,
>but how does one express the notion that the latter is bigger, because
>there are twice as many integers as even numbers?

That erroneous notion can be expressed, for example, as:

lei relmeina'u lei kacna'u cu xadba le ka kaclai
The even numbers are half the integers in number.

>In what property
>does the set of integers exceed the set of even numbers?

Apparent numerosity?

>I presume
>there is a well-known answer to this question, but the best I can
>do on my own is something along the lines of "frequency" or
>"distributional density" (within the set of integers/numbers/whatever);

Certainly in any given finite interval (with more than one number
anyway) the integers outnumber the evens, but not in total.

>if that is the way to go, then how does one actually say it in Lojban?

lei kacna'u lei relmeina'u cu zmadu le ka denmi

co'o mi'e xorxes

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