Subject: Re: [lojban] Some questions

From: "Jorge Llambias" <[email-masked]>
Date: Fri, 16 Mar 2001 02:40:19

la avital cusku di'e

>a) Regarding be/bei/be'o. I don't quite understand why bei is needed. Why
>can't it be defined that <le SELBRI be TEXT be'o> be understood as "what
>fills the place for '_______ cu SELBRI TEXT'", and sumti are separated the
>'standard' way in a normal bridi

That would make {be'o} never elidable. With the current grammar
it usually is elidable.

>b) After starting to teach Lojban to some friends, they all shouted out
>that "This goddamn 'y' letter is all fucked-up.

My feelings precisely.

>Anyone have any explanations?

Speakers of 5-vowel languages were not consulted at the time...

>c) The use of pe with tense modifiers. I do not understand the grammer
>behind <le prenu pe pu>. This seems idiotic, or at least 'forcing the
>meaning' into the phrase. Isn't a sumti supposed to some after pe? And if
>not, what is the exact way of understanding the meaning?

Do you mean {le prenu pe pu ku}? {puku} is a term, it can be
attached to a sumti using {pe} like any other term. It would mean
"the person associated with the past (of something, usually the
past of now)".

co'o mi'e xorxes

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