Subject: Re: [lojban] Re: (C)V'{i|u}V

From: Richard Curnow <[email-masked]>
Date: Fri, 3 Aug 2001 22:20:32 +0100

On Fri, Aug 03, 2001 at 12:53:37PM -0400, Bob LeChevalier (lojbab) wrote:
> At 04:48 PM 8/3/01 +0100, And Rosta wrote:
> >that {bue} was considered an unofficial but valid spelling of
> >{bu'e}, so this leads me to wonder whether /bue/ (as opposed to
> >/bu'e ~ bu,e/ truly is legal.
> 
> bue and bu,e are considered alternate orthographic/phonologic forms of the 
> same word.

I thought there was a discussion some time back when it was concluded
that bu,e was treated equivalent to bu'e. In which cases Bob is saying
that

bue == bu,e == bu'e

but then don't we have

bai == ba,i == ba'i

which is clearly useless, since bai and ba'i are certainly used as
distinct words?

So what is the true situation regarding commas appearing between pairs
of vowels? What have I missed?

(The algorithm currently in jbofi'e and vlatai assumes that a comma
between vowels is effectively equivalent to an apostrophe. If this is
wrong, I'd like to understand the correct handling of commas and fix
this before I make a new release, which event was otherwise imminent.)

co'o mi'e ritcrd. poi zenba selfi'u

-- 
R.P.Curnow,Weston-super-Mare,UK |lo samskiro'a cu simsa lo'e glefau
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