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Date: Wed, 15 Aug 2001 10:36:06 +0100 (BST)
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To: "A.W.T." <Ti@fa-kuan.muc.de>
Cc: lojban@yahoogroups.com
Subject: Re: [lojban] Re: Transliterations survey
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From: Andrew Smith <andrew@ling.ed.ac.uk>


On Tue, 14 Aug 2001, A.W.T. wrote:

> --- In lojban@y..., Andrew Smith <andrew@l...> wrote:
> > As far as I know, when the Hungarians reformed their spelling system
> > sometime last century, names were exempted, and so are still spelt usin=
g
> > the old rules.
> >=20
> > So the name Ra'koczi stayed as it is, but czukor (sugar) became cukor.
> > Likewise Eo"tvo"s and Eszterha'zy.
>=20
> This is correct: "cz" {ts} shifted to "c" (cz=E1r->c=E1r) whereas "cs" an=
d "sz=3D
> " {tc/s} remained unaltered (cs=E1sz=E1r=3Demperor).
> "Czukor", common Jewish-Hungarian surname remained (cukor=3Dsugar). So pa=
rtly=3D
> did "We=F6r=F6s" (v=F6r=F6s=3Dblue-ish red).

Interesting that vo"ro"s is blue-ish red - I learnt it as being a deeper
red than piros rather than bluer. So the Hungarian flag is
piros-fehe'r-zo"ld (red-white-green), but the Soviet (red) army was the
vo"ro"s hadsereg.

> "T=F3oth" now usually is "T=F3th" (not unlike in Danish "aa" -> "=E5"); t=
he "th" =3D
> has become simple "t".
> BTW, E=F6tv=F6s is the name of a well-known "gimn=E1zium" in lovely Tata.
> The final "-y" or "-yi" {ii} usually is an indicator for nobility (in a l=
oc=3D
> ative function), like in "B=E1t(t)y=E1nyi" - not too=20
> comparable, though, to German "Kissinger" as "the one from Kissingen/Fran=
ko=3D
> nia" ;-)

Is that just the same as the -i ending now, then, like pesti (from Pest)
or even londoni (from London)?

> As for myself, I'm still wondering why this famous aristocratic name is g=
iv=3D
> en with "s" instead of Hungarian "sz" (while nonetheless=20=20
> *not* being pronounced as {ecterxasi} - but this seems to be for histori=
ca=3D
> l reason.
> How do you pronounce "Rothschild"?; in German it is still {ro:tcilt} ("ro=
th=3D
> " was the former spelling for "rot", which is "red").=20
> Just asking because I found the common German-Jewish surname pronounced w=
it=3D
> h English "th" in N.Y. (and "Koch" {kox} which is=20
> "cook" as {kotc}).

As an English speaker in Britain, I pronounce Rothschild as
something like [rOTstSajld], wherr

O is the British English short o in `hot', which is unrounded in contrast
to the American short o
T is the unvoiced 'th' in 'thing', so as you had heard it pronounced
S is the 'sh' in 'shoe'

Quite a good quadri-consonantal cluster in the middle there! I suppose if
saying it quickly you might drop the [T], mind you.

Basically, as a rule of thumb, English speakers tend to mangle foreign
names by pronouncing them as if they were English until anyone tells them
different. There's also a lot of hyper-correction, where someone uses a
`foreign' pronunciation of a letter, but from the wrong language.

During the Falklands war 20 years ago (was it really that long ago?), the
Argentine government was routinely referred to as the military junta - the
finally word obviously just the Spanish word. At first, it was pronounced
on the television news as [dZunta] as if it was an English word, then
people tried to make it more foreign-sounding, so changed to [junta], with
a glide like English y. Spanish speakers, of course, used [xunta], so when
this was realised, the news changed again, this time to [hunta], avoiding
the [x]. In the end there was no consensus, and the same person would use
two or more pronunciations.


Andrew Smith

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