Today I was reminded of one "flaw" in phonology namely, the presense of [z] in Lojban.
Mandarin doesn't have it/has it as an allophone of t͡s.
So my question is: what would be the minimally destroying changes to remove [z] from the language or to remove {dz} instead so that Mandarin speakers can use t͡s to mean [z]. I know that replacing "voiced/voiceless" distinction with "non-aspirated-semi-voiced/aspirated-voiceless" might not be embraced easily but since Chinese is one of the source languages may be something could be done to make their life happier?
I suppose to do that one needs to always insert buffer between {dz}, never pronounce {dz} as an affricate and may be even always insert {y} in {radzu'e}.