RE: [jboske] putative tense scope effects (was: RE: Concrete examples ofLlambanlo'e

["Jorge Llambias" <jjllambias@hotmail.com>]

la and cusku di'e

> My question, then, is what is the difference between CLL & xod's
> versions,


> > > > la djan cu darxi lo nanmu ze'a lo jetfu
> > > >
> > > > CLL reading:
> > > >
> > > > su'o da poi nanmu zo'u (la djan cu darxi da ze'a lo jetfu)
> > > > There is at least one man x such that: (John hits x all week)
> > > >
> > > > xod's reading:
> > > >
> > > > (su'o da poi nanmu zo'u la djan cu darxi da) ze'a lo jeftu
> > > > (There is at least one man that John hits) that happens all week

The difference is that xod took {ze'a} to have scope over {lo},
even though it appears after {lo}. xod's reading agrees with
your reading of {darxi ze'a le jeftu lo nanmu}.

> and for each version, how can the other be said in
> Std lojban?

I don't know about std lojban, it has probably not been defined. In
my opinion, {ze'a} does not consist of a series of times but it is
rather a single duration. To get the two meanings you expressed I
would use {roroi}:

> > > > la djan cu darxi lo nanmu roroi le jeftu
> > > > There is a man such that John hits him every
> > > > time during the week
> > > >
> > > > la djan cu darxi roroi le jeftu lo nanmu
> > > > Every time during the week, there is a man that
> > > > John hits
> > > >
> > > > But {ze'a} should be a singular term

mu'o mi'e xorxes



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