RE: [jboske] putative tense scope effects (was: RE: Concrete examplesofLlambanlo'e

["And Rosta" <a.rosta@lycos.co.uk>]

xorxes:
> la and cusku di'e
> 
> >My question, then, is what is the difference between CLL & xod's
> >versions,
> 
> > > > > la djan cu darxi lo nanmu ze'a lo jetfu
> > > > >
> > > > > CLL reading:
> > > > >
> > > > > su'o da poi nanmu zo'u (la djan cu darxi da ze'a lo jetfu)
> > > > > There is at least one man x such that: (John hits x all week)
> > > > >
> > > > > xod's reading:
> > > > >
> > > > > (su'o da poi nanmu zo'u la djan cu darxi da) ze'a lo jeftu
> > > > > (There is at least one man that John hits) that happens all week
> 
> The difference is that xod took {ze'a} to have scope over {lo},
> even though it appears after {lo}. xod's reading agrees with
> your reading of {darxi ze'a le jeftu lo nanmu} 
> 
> >and for each version, how can the other be said in
> >Std lojban?
> 
> I don't know about std lojban, it has probably not been defined. In
> my opinion, {ze'a} does not consist of a series of times but it is
> rather a single duration. To get the two meanings you expressed I
> would use {roroi}:

What I don't understand is that you're saying to xod that his version
differs from CLL, yet apparently also that the two versions mean the
same thing, analogously to:

dunda lo cukta la djan
dunda fi la djan fe lo cukta

If there is a truthconditional difference between xod's reading and
the CLL reading, what is it?

--And.