Re: [lojban-beginners] Questions from a friend

[Adam Lopresto <adamlopresto@gmail.com>]

There's nothing particularly "logical" or "illogical" about the choice of 'c' to represent /ʃ/ (the "sh" sound). It's more a matter of 'c' being available (since both 's' and 'k' serve for its main uses), and better than the other letters that didn't get used ('h', 'q', 'w').

On Sun, Nov 11, 2012 at 12:19 AM, Devin Prater <r.d.t.prater@gmail.com> wrote:

[coi rodo]
I am attempting to teach a friend of mine from school how to speak Lojban. Her native language is Russian, but she basically grew up in a Southern English community, so her thought processes, as it seems to me, are a mixture of the two cultures. A few days ago, I was trying to get her to see how the diphthongs in Lojban are in fact logical, and how the C is logical in the way it is pronounced. I think there was something else she wanted me to ask about, but I can't remember what it is. Anyways, she basically wants to know how the c is logically phonetic, (she's gotten way too used to the English c I'm guessing), but she did observe that the tc makes since if the c makes since, but she cannot grasp the need for the c to have the sh sound

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