Re: [lojban-beginners] Why is CAhA a tense/modal?

[Michael Turniansky <mturniansky@gmail.com>]

On Thu, Apr 28, 2011 at 11:28 AM, Jonathan Jones <eyeonus@gmail.com> wrote:

On Thu, Apr 28, 2011 at 4:24 AM, Michael Turniansky <mturniansky@gmail.com> wrote:

On Wed, Apr 27, 2011 at 4:45 PM, Jonathan Jones <eyeonus@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Wed, Apr 27, 2011 at 2:28 PM, MorphemeAddict <lytlesw@gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>> It's easier to keep I and YOU than forever distinguish between I as
>> speaker and YOU as listener.
>
>
> Except that I /is/ /always/ the person speaking, and you /is/ /always/ the
> person listening.
>

 Well, no.  I refer you to CLL 17.14:

> Using any vocative except ``mi'e'' (explained below) implicitly defines the meaning of the
> pro-sumti ``do'', as the whole point of vocatives is to specify the listener, or at any rate
> the desired listener --- even if the desired listener isn't listening! We will use the terms
> ``speaker'' and ``listener'' for clarity, although in written Lojban the appropriate terms
> would be ``writer'' and ``reader''.


   So do doesn't have to be even listening.  And we also know that
mi'e can assign a plural to "mi". (CLL 7.2)  Questions like what does
"mi'e le gerku" mean (presumably "okay, I am speaking for the dog
now") are left open.

              --gejyspa

That reference agrees with me, gejyspa.

 

  You said do was _always_ the listener and mi was _always_ the speaker.  (emphasis yours).  I was simply pointing out do is only the person being addressed, not necessarily a person who was actually listening.  And that "I" can refer to someone other than the person who was actually speaking, since you can be speaking for someone other than yourself.

                  --gejyspa

 

                

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