[lojban-beginners] Re: two epiphanies

["Jorge Llambías" <jjllambias@gmail.com>]

On 3/16/07, Turniansky, Michael <MICHAEL.A.TURNIANSKY@saic.com> wrote:

> 2)       Tenses can also act as modals (subject to the caveat in Chap. 10,
> sect. 23), which is why things like "co'u le nu mi citka kei mi vamtu" (At
> the end of my eating, I threw up)  work.

The "caveat" is not stated very well in CLL for my taste.

CLL says that {mukti} "underlies" {mu'i}, which is very well, because
{mu'i} = {fi'o mukti}

But then it says that {balvi} "underlies" {ba}, which does not make that much
sense, because {ba} = {fi'o se balvi}, not {fi'o balvi}, so what does "underlie"
mean here?

(BTW, "modal" is a horrid misnomer for BAIs from the point of view of
linguistic terminology.)

>    So, have I got this right??  (and I think I just had epiphany number
> three – this is what the heck is meant by sumti tcita, isn't it??)

Yep.

mu'o mi'e xorxes