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Re: [lojban] Why kez?



In a message dated 10/11/2002 6:12:03 PM Central Daylight Time, a.rosta@lycos.co.uk writes:

<<
How come {kei} has a rafsi (kez)?
>>
Is the question Why this particular form of rafsi? or Why a rafsi for kei at all?
I suppose the answer to the first is"because it doesn't interfere with anything else yet is close to the full form." I haven't a clue about the second, since I can't imagine actually using it in a lujvo --even if {kei} were used in the underlying tanru.


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