RE: [lojban] Re: my opinion on why lojban isn't specifically well suited for human-computer interaction.1

["M@" <matthew.dunlap@gmail.com>]

First and foremost I'm not qualified whatsoever to talk about this, as I am
searching for these types of answers myself.  That said, here's my take on
this specific case.

Spanish stands alone because it has evolved into an independent entity in
exactly the same way that species of animal can split off from one another
if they are separated for a long enough period of time.

Additionally, codes can be abstracted, languages cannot (or at least none
that are coming to mind can).  I could speak lojban in Morse Code, or
Spanish in Morse Code (if I could speak Spanish that is).  I can't imagine
pig latin would work very well applied to Spanish, but conceptually there is
no barrier with the idea.

Do you mean to suggest that Latin grammar is the same as Spanish grammar (I
don't know one way or the other)?  

--M@

> -----Original Message-----
> From: lojban-list-bounce@lojban.org [mailto:lojban-list-bounce@lojban.org]
> On Behalf Of Timothy Hobbs
> Sent: Monday, September 25, 2006 12:07 AM
> To: lojban-list@lojban.org
> Subject: [lojban] Re: my opinion on why lojban isn't specifically well
> suited for human-computer interaction.1
> 
> if all Spanish words were regularly modified Latin words, instead of just
> most.  would Spanish not be a language but a code.  does the fact that
> Spanish imports a class libraries of words from 3rd party languages (that
> is, other than Latin...) make it a language and not an code for speaking
> Latin?  would that make Morse code come under the same category as
> Spanish, since it has its own unique set of acronyms and words related to
> communicating accurately?
> 
> 
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