[lojban] Re: {x1 x2 = x2 co x1}?

[John E Clifford <lojban-out@lojban.org>]

> My first answer is lost somewhere in Yahoo
Hell,
> (and this one has been shuffled around a bit as
well) but what I said was:
> This supposition is totally reasonable, but
> wrong. Assuming that there are no following
sumti
> (and what to do about what there are is another
> good question) the every {s1 s2} is equivalent
to
> {s2 co s1} "by definition" (however we say
that).
> so that cannot be the source of a
> subclassification of Lojban brivla.  What might
> work is a classification on the basis of what
{s1
> s2} and {s2 co s1} *mean*: for "adjectives the
> most probably might be something like "is
rather
> s1 for an s2" while "nouns" might most likely
be
> {s2 f- lo s1} or some such thing.  BUT I
suspect
> that this difference in probabilities for
> meanings is more a function of us English
(etc.)
> speakers carrying over our habits into Lojban
and
> that in native Lojban the probabilities would
be
> about the same for each "class" of selbri. 
--- Opi Lauma <lojban-out@lojban.org> wrote:
---------------------------------
coi

I would like to ask new question. Is it right
that
{selbri1 selbri2} = {selbri2 co selbri1}? For
example
it should be right if selbri1 = {cmalu} and
selbri2 =
{ckule}. {cmalu ckule} = {ckule co cmalu}, isn't?
However, I am not sure that {nanla ckule} =
{ckule co
nanla}.

I have supposition, that if we divide selbri by
classes which will satisfy different rules of
transformation we will get classes which will
correspond to substantive, verbs and adjective.
For
example {cmalu} and {nanla} should belong to
different
classes because the first of them sutisfy {x1 x2
= x2
co x1} and the second one does not. So, may be
lojban
also has different part of speech (however not
explicitly). May be this parts come not from
grammar
but from meaning?

mu'o mi'e .opilaumas


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