[lojban] Re: A (rather long) discussion of {all}

["Maxim Katcharov" <lojban-out@lojban.org>]

On 7/11/06, Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com> wrote:
> Maxim Katcharov <maxim.katcharov@gmail.com> wrote:
> > I don't suggest that a language would not function without plurals,
> > but that it's odd that the line was drawn between 1 and 2. Without an
> > explanation for this, one would think that there are languages out
> > there that have a pervasive plural that makes itself known between 2
> > and 3, for example.
>
> There are such languages. See:
> <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_number> for some examples.

Are these 'dual/trial numbers' as pervasive as the "1 vs >1"
distinction in those languages? I doubt it. What I would like to see
is a natural language that has one verbiage for, say, 1 and 2 things,
and another for 3 or more. Or perhaps a language that has only few vs
many. Clearly, a language can be constructed with this requirement,
and it's a gamble to say that one shouldn't exist. My point is that
the tendency of many natural languages to draw the line at 1|2+ seems
to indicate something, and I suggest that it is that thought works in
the way that I describe. This isn't an argument for my position, and
my position isn't dependant on this. It is, as I said, just something
to consider.


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