Re: [lojban] RE:literalism

["Jorge Llambias" <jjllambias@hotmail.com>]

la lojbab cusku di'e

> Nope.  I used English "mal-" prefix as the English input, as in malformed
> and malaprop. It is an prefix indicating negative rather than
> opposite.

But why such an odd choice for English? None of the English mal-
words would go into Lojban as {mabla}, would they? What was the
Loglan equivalent?

> Actually, I think someone
> pointed it out to me, that some languages use "mal" for opposite and others
> use it for bad.

Other than Esperanto, is there any language that uses it for
opposite? I always thought it came from a few French words
like "maladroit" which is opposite of "adroit", but the
meaning of the suffix is not opposite.

> But since I did not and do not know much about Esperanto, I don't have a
> clear idea how much that prefix is used - only that it gets criticized a
> lot by Esperanto opponents.

It is used a lot and yes, it is one of the favourite criticisms
against Esperanto.

> I like word patterns based on prefixes and
> suffixes when that is the way they work in natlangs.  Derogatives and most
> other alterations to a basic meaning are usually expressed with a prefix on
> the root, comparatives with a suffix.

"Usually" as in "in English", right? Because in Spanish it
is precisely the other way around, derogatives are formed
with suffixes and comparatives with a preposed particle.

And in any case, English does not really have any prefix
for derogatives that I know of. It usually has a separate
word. For example, for Spanish "casa", "casucha", English
has "house", "hovel". There's no "mal-house" or anything
of that sort.

co'o mi'e xorxes


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