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Re: Language of Logic and Logical Language.

--- In lojban@y..., "Jorge Llambias" <jjllambias@h...> wrote:
> 
> (I find the mythical
> claim that Lojban does not have an obligatory singular-plural
> distinction very misleading, when not properly explained.)

Would you mind elaborating on this? How does Lojban have an 
obligatory singular-plural distinction?

   Sincerely,
             Robert