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Re: [lojban] To Polish fellow lojbanists
Krzysztof Sobolewski wrote:
Dnia środa, 29 września 2010 o 19:13:54 Jorge Llambías napisał(a):
2010/9/29 Krzysztof Sobolewski <jezuch@interia.pl>:
So could some confirm that using the same sound for {x} and {'} does not introduce ambiguity? :)
It introduces plenty of ambiguity. Just consider any CV'V cmavo for a
start, which becomes indistinguishable from the two cmavo CV xV.
Well then, I think I'll stick with silent {'}. But this is problematic with things like {du'u} or {zo'o}. Is there any hope for people who don't see (hear) any difference between [x] and [h] (both in IPA, according to Wikipedia)? ;)
I haven't been following this, but "'" can be any voiceless glide
(approximant), not necessarily IPA "h".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Approximant_consonant
discusses this, and gives several examples. It says this about "h"
Occasionally, the glottal "fricatives" are called approximants, since
[h] typically has no more frication than voiceless approximants, but
> they are often phonations of the glottis without any accompanying
> manner or place of articulation.
suggesting that the thing to avoid in distinguishing x and h is the
noticeable frication. Since I don't know Polish, I can't help beyond
that point. But perhaps our Russian native speakers have a similar
problem and could comment.
(People have at times chosen to express the rule as "any non-lojbanic
voiceless consonant", with the most striking example being someone here
in Virginia who used a voiceless "th" fricative. As I recall, it
sounded real funny, but it was understandable.)
lojbab
--
Bob LeChevalier lojbab@lojban.org www.lojban.org
President and Founder, The Logical Language Group, Inc.
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