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[lojban] non-clausal ke'a
What could this mean:
[.i] mi ke'a citka
I suppose it's syntactically valid. But what relativised sumti could
it refer to? Would it make more sense if it followed another sentence:
mi viska lo plise .i mi ke'a citka
Could we say that this {mi ke'a citka} is a sentential expansion of a
clause that could describe {lo plise}, as in this:
mi viska lo plise poi mi ke'a citka
I'm asking this as I've been thinking about the difference between
"le/la/les" and "en" in French:
Je vois une pomme. Je la mange.
(I see an apple. I eat it.)
mi viska pa plise .i mi ri citka
Je vois des pommes. Je les mange.
(I see apples. I eat them.)
mi viska su'o plise .i mi ri citka
Je vois des pommes. J'en mange.
(I see apples. I eat "of them".)
mi viska su'o plise .i mi ___ citka
http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/en#French
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_personal_pronouns#The_pronoun_en
Would {ri/ra/ru} alone be an accurate translation of "en", which
differs from "le/la/les" in the referent's quantity (i.e. whereas "Je
la mange." means that the whole of the object is eaten, "J'en mange."
doesn't imply such an entirety)? My guess is that {su'o ri}, that is
{su'o su'o plise}, would be more accurate than a bare {ri}. But I also
vaguely feel that "en" might have something to do more with
relativising "ke'a" than with back-counting "ri/ra/ru" (or the lerfu
solution, for that matter -- "py" in this case).
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