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[lojban] [CLL Errata] zo ra'o



coi rodo

In http://www.lojban.org/publications/reference_grammar/chapter7.html#s6
after the explanation about the cmavo {ra'o}, it is stated that
"
The ``ra'o'' forces the second ``mi'' from the original bridi to mean
the new
speaker rather than the former speaker. This means that ``go'e ra'o''
would
be an acceptable alternative to ``do go'e'' in B's statement in
Example 6.10.
"

If I understand correctly, the last sentence is wrong for two reasons.

The CLL defines {ra'o} in this paragraph:
"
Finally, ``ra'o'' is a cmavo that can be appended to any go'i-series
cmavo,
or indeed any cmavo of selma'o GOhA, to signal that pro-sumti or pro-
bridi
cmavo in the antecedent are to be repeated literally and reinterpreted
in
their new context. Normally, any pro-sumti used within the antecedent
of
the pro-bridi keep their meanings intact. In the presence of ``ra'o'',
however,
their meanings must be reinterpreted with reference to the new
environment.
"

Example 6.10 is
"
6.10)
    A: mi ba klama le zarci
    B: mi nelci le si'o mi go'i
    A: do go'e
"


Firstly, {do go'e} is not B's, but A's statement.

Secondly, being A's statement, the referent of {mi} does not change.
In this example, {go'e ra'o} would mean the same as {go'e}.

The current text might give the impression that {ra'o} simply swaps
{mi} by {do} in the referenced bridi, which is not the case, is it?

Apparently, someone noted that and proposed a correction in
http://www.lojban.org/tiki/CLL%2C+aka+Reference+Grammar%2C+Errata

However, I believe that the "correct correction" approved instead
is in contradiction with the definition of {ra'o} in the CLL, for the
reasons
stated above.

I would then appreciate clarification on the issue.
Also, is this the right place to discuss this kind of issue?

mu'o
mi'e .asiz.

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