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Re: [lojban] Ancient Greek, free word order and the same FA two times in a bridi
I tend to think that {broda fa ko'a fa ko'e} means more or less the same thing as {ko'a broda .i ko'e broda}, ie making two predications at once or 'putting two feet into the same boot' (or some similar _expression_ that somebody once used). The (logical, temporal, etc.) connection between the first bridi and the second in {ko'a broda .i ko'e broda} would depend on context, wouldn't it? So, can't the meaning of 'double-FA' expressions be considered similarly context dependent?
Out of context, I would assume that both statements are to express prepositions held true (by the speaker). So, such 'double-FA' utterances may have sense or not, depending of course on the predication and the arguments involved.
{catlu fe lo melbi tsani fe lo cmalu rirxe fa ko} -> why not
{se jbena fa mi fa do la cmen.} -> probably dissonant … also, sorry for the somewhat ka'u disgusting example :/
Hm. This doesn't make much sense, does it?
·iesk·
Le samedi 4 août 2012 21:30:43 UTC+2, Pierre Abbat a écrit :On Saturday 04 August 2012 10:12:18 Luke Bergen wrote:
> This has come up a couple times before.
>
> I don't think it's a matter of "we need to figure out how to do this
> because other languages do it". I think it's more so a matter of "the
> grammar allows this form (fe lo barda cu broda fe lo gerku), we should
> probably decide just what it means".
Maybe it's good to figure out what this construction means, but I don't think
that, in general, it's wise to assign a meaning to every construction that
the formal grammar allows. "mi te.u do du ra'o lo gerku pe naku" I consider
to be ungrammatical on the second level, even though it is grammatical on the
first (the formal grammar).
Pierre
--
loi mintu se ckaji danlu cu jmaji
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