On Sat, Aug 18, 2012 at 4:36 AM, And Rosta
<and.rosta@gmail.com> wrote:
Jonathan Jones, On 18/08/2012 01:28:
On Fri, Aug 17, 2012 at 5:31 PM, And Rosta <and.rosta@gmail.com <mailto:and.rosta@gmail.com>> wrote:
Jonathan Jones, On 17/08/2012 21:19:
It shouldn't be difficult at in Lojban. {ii} is a diphthong
pronounced "YEE", {i} is a vowel pronounced "EE".
...and that's easy only for native anglophones, helped by the diphthongal character of "EE" in most accents.
I highly doubt that. The consonant-y sound appears in a whole variety of languages.While Japanese doesn't have "yi", it does have や"ya", ゆ"yu", and よ"yo", which are distinctive sounds from あ"a", う"u", and お"o".
You transmute healthy skepticism into pigheadedness. Why the gap at "yi"? What is the phonetic difference between {i} and {ii} and why do you suppose it to be easy?