Given that Lojban is 'complete' (baselined) and Lojban phonotactics don't forbid {ii} in that position, I guess this exchangue of opinions is about the phonaesthetics of a word like {dzombii}, right? Otherwise I can’t see why the relative difficulties speakers of various linguistic backgrounds might have pronouncing it could be relevant.
After all, Lojban just isn’t very easy to pronounce. (On the contrary, I find it surprisingly difficult.)
iesk
Le samedi 18 août 2012 12:36:33 UTC+2, And Rosta a écrit :
Jonathan Jones, On 18/08/2012 01:28:
> On Fri, Aug 17, 2012 at 5:31 PM, And Rosta <and....@gmail.com <mailto:and....@gmail.com>> wrote:
> Jonathan Jones, On 17/08/2012 21:19:
>
> It shouldn't be difficult at in Lojban. {ii} is a diphthong
> pronounced "YEE", {i} is a vowel pronounced "EE".
>
>
> ...and that's easy only for native anglophones, helped by the diphthongal character of "EE" in most accents.
>
>
> I highly doubt that. The consonant-y sound appears in a whole variety of languages.While Japanese doesn't have "yi", it does have や"ya", ゆ"yu", and よ"yo", which are distinctive sounds from あ"a", う"u", and お"o".
You transmute healthy skepticism into pigheadedness. Why the gap at "yi"? What is the phonetic difference between {i} and {ii} and why do you suppose it to be easy?
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