I am curious, do you know how well Mandarin speakers manage with Lojban's voiced plosives /b d g/? Are [b d g] allophones of Mandarin /p t k/?IMO, most of them can be rather semi-voiced than fully voiced except [g] probably. But how would they otherwise perceive [b] if not as [p]?As for when we do need to express [p] we would probably have to always aspirate it to make Chinese Lojbanists understand more easily what we are saying.And this is how I mapped the phonologies of the two languages. The result is that only [v] and [z] can pose problems.