Re: [bpfk] Question on {z} vs. {dz} and {ts}

[Gleki Arxokuna <gleki.is.my.name@gmail.com>]

2015-01-18 12:30 GMT+03:00 Philip Newton <philip.newton@gmail.com>:

On 18 January 2015 at 10:00, Gleki Arxokuna <gleki.is.my.name@gmail.com> wrote:
> And my question is: why not disallow [d͡z] since only Arabic has it.

Say what? It’s news to me that Arabic has [dz)] as a unitary phoneme.

You are right. Like with Chinese and Russian it's an allophone.

So why do we have it if no major languages have it as an "basic" phoneme?

I'm fine with it as an allophone but currenty it's not.

 

And if you are talking about the sequence of sounds [dz], English has
the word ‘adze’.

mu'o mi'e .filip.

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