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[lojban-beginners] Re: Referring to selma'o in Lojban



oh wow, that's a good one.  does the {zo} quote the {zei} or since {zei} is "magic" does it take {zo} litterally?  Or does none of that happen because {si} says "nope, I didn't mean to say {zei} there".  Hmmm, that brings up a more general question for me. 

Does {si} juts erase a word or does it erase the word and any proto-text results of having said that word.  e.g. if I say {lo gerku goi ko'a si si} have I merely erased the words {goi ko'a} or have I erased the words and the pro-sumti assignment that resulted from their being spoken?  Or, if I say {mi klama lo zdani sa} and then someone else says {go'i} are they referring to {mi klama lo zdani} or whatever came before it?

I'm sure there are better examples than those.  Those were just the first ones to come to mind.


On Thu, Aug 20, 2009 at 12:00 PM, tijlan <jbotijlan@gmail.com> wrote:
2009/8/20 Luke Bergen <lukeabergen@gmail.com>:
> ooo, that's interesting?  So in {ba'e zei selma'o} does the {zei} evaluate
> first and create the lujvo first or does {ba'e} evaluate first and say "this
> is REALLY a lujvo"?
>
> I don't know why I find battle between words so interesting {zo si si si}
> etc...

This one is knotty too: zo zei si zei bu.

Or maybe not. I would like the idea that {zo}, {si}, and {bu} are the
equal components of the lujvo combined with the inner two {zei}.