On Thu, May 17, 2012 at 2:00 AM, ianek
<janek37@gmail.com> wrote:
> The reason he says {mi'a ponse
> lo xunre jipci je bakni} is false is because he is referring to them as
> individuals.
So if I'm referring to them as a group, then {mi'a ponse lo xunre
jipci je bakni} is true, right? And the sentence is not wrong, only
one interpretation is wrong?
Yes. In order to ensure that only the intended interpretation is
derived by the audience, you must either be explicit about whether you
are referring to the object(s) individually (with "PA lo broda") or as a
group/set (with "loi broda"/"lo'i broda"), or allow context to make the
distinction for you, which is in itself usually enough.
Oh, how I love Lojban, the unambiguous
language.
Syntactically unambiguous, which means that there are no instances where a word or phrase can be confused with a different word or phrase, (such with English to, too, and two, or the famous "pretty little girls' school" example).
Semantically, Lojban is no less ambiguous than any other language, and is often more so, because of the rather vague- bu intention- meanings of the words.
On 17 Maj, 09:50, Jonathan Jones <eyeo...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Thu, May 17, 2012 at 1:18 AM, ianek <
jane...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > Also, I still don't see any difference in meaning between {broda} and
> > {me lo broda}.
>
> Well, obviously, it's the place structure.
> {mi klama} means "I go from somewhere to somewhere by some route using some
> means"/"I am-a-go-er from somewhere to somewhere by some route using some
> means" (and all the various different tenses of those).
>
> {mi me lo klama} means "I am amongst-those-that-are-(something that goes
> from somewhere to somewhere by some route using some means) in some aspect".
>
> You have to remember that unfilled places are always implicitly filled with
> "zo'e", as well, so those two above are actually {mi klama zo'e zo'e zo'e
> zo'e} and {mi me lo klama be zo'e bei zo'e bei zo'e bei zo'e be'o zo'e},
> respectively.
I remember that, obviously.
That doesn't answer my question. If I go, then I'm amongst those that
are goers. If I'm amongst those that are goers, then I go. Am I right?
If so, then there's no difference in meaning of the x1 place between
{klama} and {me lo klama}. And the meaning of me2 is very unclear, as
I remember from the discussion about it here.
mu'o mi'e ianek
As far as the x1 is concerned, no, I don't believe there is any difference. "me" is most useful when wanting to describe things which have no brivla, such as in {mi me la.djan.}