Re: [lojban] To Polish fellow lojbanists

[Jonathan Jones <eyeonus@gmail.com>]

2010/9/29 Krzysztof Sobolewski <jezuch@interia.pl>

Dnia środa, 29 września 2010 o 09:31:02 Remo Dentato napisał(a):

> Unfortunately I got stuck at finding a direct correspondence between
> lojban and Polish phonemes trying to differentiate between {'} and
> {x}.

Huh, I was wondering about that too ;) I treat the instructions that {'} is "silent h" very literally and don't pronunce it at all ;) (At least in my mind, as I don't have many occasions to speak lojban) But from what I heard I seem to be alone in that, and it's kinda problematic because although there is a theoretical difference between "h" and "ch", it's mostly, if not entirely, gone from modern Polish. So I have just one mental model for "h" and hesitate to use it for both {x} and {'}.

So could some confirm that using the same sound for {x} and {'} does not introduce ambiguity? :)
--
Ecce Jezuch
"Did I have the dream, or did the dream have me?"
-N. Peart

IIRC, pronouncing {'} as "h" was at one point in time optional, in the same way that adding the "i" in "fit" (or any other very short vowel) is optional for difficult consonant clusters, as in {zdani} (ZiDANI). I'm not certain when it was decided the {'} = "h" stopped being optional, but I say, if you want to pronounce {mi'e} as {mi,e}, all that really matters is that you're understood.

-- 
mu'o mi'e .aionys.

.i.a'o.e'e ko cmima le bende pe lo pilno be denpa bu .i doi luk. mi patfu do zo'o
(Come to the Dot Side! Luke, I am your father. :D )

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