[lojban] Re: Specific terminology - the case of philosophy terminology

[iesk <pa.fae@gmx.de>]

Sorry, either you throw some things together here, or I just don't get
it. Yes, the 'causa sui' reasoning is, well, kind of a trick. But why
would you need to specify that it is *Spinoza's* God when you're
translating him (as opposed to: commenting on his book)? He gives all
the definitions himself, explicitly, which you can translate. Neither
as a translator, nor as a Lojbanic reader would you have to accept
them.

Or are you saying that one cannot translate elaborate tautologies into
Lojban?

(By the way I would not know what a standard meaning of 'God' would
be. In fact, I am regularly confused when someone uses that word in
conversation. Doesn't happen that often, though.)

-iesk

On Mar 20, 8:24 pm, Escape Landsome <escaa...@gmail.com> wrote:
> The difficulty with Spinoza is that he coins most of his syllogisms
> from the fact he gives very specific meaning to the terms he uses
> (e.g. God, which is the "causa sui", or the one thing that needs
> nothing else than its "essence" to exist).
>
> Well, so the conclusion is  * either the terms are "of course" those
> whith the associated meanings, --- and then all the book is a big (not
> even necessarily convincing) tautology
>
> * or the terms don't come so handy, and you take for granted God (for
> instance) can refer to a great number of different things, but then
> --- how to explain it is SOME PARTICULAR meaning that is intended in
> Spinoza's works ?
>
> Perhaps saying "lo cevni la spinozas" would suffice ??

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