On Thu, Apr 1, 2010 at 19:54, MorphemeAddict <lytlesw@gmail.com> wrote:
Has anyone ever said that individual words shouldn't be culturally biased, e.g., your example of "portugala/portugese"? I have only ever heard that the language shouldn't be culturally biased.
I keep trying to respond to this, but I'm not sure what you mean. If the bias doesn't come from words, their sources, and their meanings, where do you see it coming from?
Chris
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