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Re: [lojban] Summary: Cultural fu'ivla
I see it as an emergent property of a language, above the level of words. (OR) The set of words called language X has properties than the words themselves don't have.
Words have many properties that are not also properties of the language they are part of.
Cultural bias in individual words is not a problem. That's what fu'ivla are for, among other things: importing words from other languages, making such fu'ivla necessarily culturally biased. Those biased fu'ivla don't necessarily make the language as a whole biased.
Also, the very existence or absence of a word could be considered culturally biased. That's the problem with the cultural gismu. They are biased towards cultures that have their own gismu.
stevo
On Fri, Apr 2, 2010 at 1:34 PM, Christopher Doty
<suomichris@gmail.com> wrote:
Has anyone ever said that individual words shouldn't be culturally biased, e.g., your example of "portugala/portugese"? I have only ever heard that the language shouldn't be culturally biased.
I keep trying to respond to this, but I'm not sure what you mean. If the bias doesn't come from words, their sources, and their meanings, where do you see it coming from?
Chris
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