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Re: [bpfk] polysemy of {nai}
Pierre Abbat scripsit:
> Which brings up another question. Does "ri" refer to "lo bifce be
> la .sfeks." (which is what I meant) or "la .sfeks."? I think it
> refers to the last finished sumti which is not a personal pronoun,
> but these two sumti finish at the same point in text.
The former, because it is equivalent to "lo bifce be la sfeks. bei",
and so terminates later.
--
Your worships will perhaps be thinking John Cowan
that it is an easy thing to blow up a dog? http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
[Or] to write a book?
--Don Quixote, Introduction cowan@ccil.org
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