Re: [lojban] cmevla as a class of brivla

[Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com>]

On Sun, Jun 9, 2013 at 2:19 PM, Betsemes <betsemes@gmail.com> wrote:

I see something strange here that I hope everyone help me to sort out.
Within this thread I have read the following:

On Fri, Jun 7, 2013 at 8:01 AM, Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com> wrote:
> The name is the selbri, but there is a sense in which the first argument is
> selected, as with other gadri. In Spanish we have the names "Amado" and
> "Amador". We could "translate" these as "la selpa'i" and "la prami".

On Sun, Jun 9, 2013 at 7:30 AM, Bob LeChevalier, President and Founder - LLG

> I wasn't talking about meaning, actually.  I was talking about grammar.  A
> brivla automatically invokes grammatically the attachment of places (except
> when quoted with zo, or used as a delimiter in a zoi quote).

On Sun, Jun 9, 2013 at 8:20 AM, selpa'i <seladwa@gmx.de> wrote:
> As you say, {zo tsani} is just the "standalone language unit" "tsani", the
> word itself, without any hidden places. But the accepted definition of {la}

> is:
>
> la broda == lo selcme be zo broda
>

> So you must have a different definition of {la} than everyone else.

xorxes explanation on "a sense" in which {la} selects the first
argument of the selbri being used as a name, is in conflict with
Selpa'i's stated definition of "la broda". In order for a {la} to be
able to select the x1 of a selbri, it must be a selbri, but if it's a
quoted word as Selpa'i's definition seems to tell, then it's just a
string of words devoided of meaning. Could someone clarify?

 "la" removes the meaning of the words, but the choice of those particular words as a name, before their meaning was removed, was not innocent.  The words could have been chosen, at least in part, for their meaning, not just for their sound, and what the x1 of that selbri is is relevant to that meaning, because it informs the choice between, for example "selpa'i" and "prami" as potential names. 

mu'o mi'e xorxes

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