[jbovlaste] Re: fu'ivla for liquors

[John Cowan <cowan@mercury.ccil.org>]

Alan Post scripsit:

> I broadly agree that we should stick to the strict definitions.  I'm
> curious *why* the strict definitions refer to products from specific
> areas of France, and whether that reason is sufficient to carry into
> a fu'ivla.

Because essentially they are trademarks in France; nothing is cognac
that doesn't come from Cognac.  Whether you think this is legitimate
truth-in-labeling or mere restraint of trade is, of course, up to you.

-- 
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